A Conversation for The Gameshow (Monty Hall problem)

I still don't get it.... (sorry)

Post 1

me[Andy]g

I probably never will get the reason why this problem works, to be honest, but anyway, here's my gripe...

Why does the probability of door B remain 1/3 after door A is shown to have nothing behind it? That's like saying that P(door B has prize |* door A has nothing)=1/3, which is absurd, since there are only two choices left and you have no extra information about either choice. smiley - erm

* | means "given that" here - it must be a conditional probability.


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I still don't get it.... (sorry)

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