A Conversation for Women in Islam: veiled oppression or stigmatised misconception? - Part 2

Women in Islam

Post 1

Dan20020

I've noted some of the comments regarding this issue and the importance of interpreting and translating verses accurately is a key one - particular in regard to the verses which infer it is ok to hit a woman.

When one struggles in this regard it is incumbent on believers to look to their respective examples. Christianity and Islam have both a source and a paradigm. It is these we should go back to when working out how to interpret a challenging verse. Indeed you confirm this when you write "Muslims believe that the Prophet is the best example of how humans should conduct themselves." Within Islam the source is the Qur'an and their paradigm is the life of the Prophet Muhammad as found in the hadith literature.

The following hadith found in Sahih Muslim, Book 4, Number 2127 - indicates that Mohammed did hit a woman and indeed struck his own wife.

http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/fundamentals/hadithsunnah/muslim/004.smt.html#004.2127

I wonder how this example might square with the comment in the article that "Muhammad never hit any of his wives."? Furthermore, how may it inform us as to how Surah 4.34 should be interpreted?


Women in Islam

Post 2

warner - a new era of cooperation

Firstly, the only action on h2g2 that 'Dan20020' seems to have made, is his previous post.
Regards men hitting women, it is clear to me that any woman who thinks
that she has been 'wronged', has a right to ask for divorce.
In fact, any woman in Islam can ask for divorce for no reason other than
unhappiness.
Although Islam does not promote divorce, it does not promote 'unhappiness', either !
Yes, it's wrong for women to be hit by men in anger and without proper measure.
It's also wrong for men to be hit, in the same way.

Nevertheless, it is permissable, to use 'measured physical beatings' on others,
by those in a position of responsibilty.


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