## A Conversation for Bigger and Bigger Infinities

### And for the Layman...

LyleOwenHyde - Keeper of Unorthodox Teas and Mildewed Filing Started conversation Sep 21, 2001

As a mathematical layman, your proof is somewhat beyond me.

Can the concept be paraphrased as follows:

For any infinite set, there must be functions that will define an infinite number of element between each element of the original set and, therefore, larger infinite sets containing these elements?

Or am I missing something here?

LOH

### And for the Layman...

HenryS Posted Sep 21, 2001

Err...I don't quite see what you mean. The main concept is that theres this way to get from any set at all (X say) to a bigger set (P(X)) by looking at the subsets of X...and then you use this fact on something we know is already infinite (N say) to get something that has to be bigger than it (P(N)). Does that make sense?

### And for the Layman...

LyleOwenHyde - Keeper of Unorthodox Teas and Mildewed Filing Posted Sep 21, 2001

Yes thanks - I think all this prooves that its been too many years since my A-level maths made any sense to me.

LOH

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### And for the Layman...

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