A Conversation for Paradigms and Paradigm Shifts

I thought...

Post 1

RFJS__ - trying to write an unreadable book, finding proofreading tricky

...that 'amo' meant 'I love', 'amare' 'to love'.

Anyone?

Good Entry otherwise, though.


I thought...

Post 2

Beatrice

Yes, amare is the infinitive form.

The pattern shown here is the "I, you, he, we, you (pl), they" endings.


I thought...

Post 3

RFJS__ - trying to write an unreadable book, finding proofreading tricky

I was referring to the footnote: 'For the verb amo, meaning "to love"'.


I thought...

Post 4

Vestboy

Have you been confused by the reference to "removing the am part"? I think the reference is to the "am in amo" not the "am as in I am". I don't think we are told within the piece what amo means.


I thought...

Post 5

RFJS__ - trying to write an unreadable book, finding proofreading tricky

The footnote reads: 'For the verb amo, meaning "to love".' 'Amo' does not mean 'to love'; it specifically means 'I love'. 'To love' is 'amare'. The 'am-' stem combines with verbal endings to make various forms of the verb for loving, but isn't a word on its own.


I thought...

Post 6

Vestboy

Now I see what you are getting at. smiley - smiley


I thought...

Post 7

MotDoc, Temporarily Exiled to Tartu, Estonia

That is correct. The issue at hand is that I translated 'amo' idiomatically rather than literally. English dictionaries list verbs in their infinitive form, while Latin dictionaries list verbs in several forms, but primarily the first person present indicative. Thus in terms of its use as a shorthand reference for every form of the verb, saying 'amo' is equivalent to saying 'to love'.
smiley - martiansmile


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